50 Free CompTIA A+ Practice Questions (220-1101 & 220-1102)
Preparing for the CompTIA A+ certification? These 50 free practice questions cover both Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) exam domains.
Core 1 Domain 1: Mobile Devices (Questions 1–8)
Question 1
Which laptop component is most likely to fail due to physical wear over time?
a) CPU
b) Hard drive (HDD)
c) RAM
d) Motherboard
Show Answer
Answer: b) Hard drive (HDD)
Explanation: HDDs have moving parts (spinning platters, read/write heads) that wear out over time. SSDs have no moving parts and are more durable. Regular backups are essential.
Question 2
What is the difference between DDR4 and DDR5 RAM?
a) DDR5 is faster and has higher capacity per module
b) DDR4 is always better than DDR5
c) DDR5 uses more power
d) They are interchangeable
Show Answer
Answer: a) DDR5 is faster and has higher capacity per module
Explanation: DDR5 offers higher speeds, larger capacities per module, and better power efficiency than DDR4. They're not interchangeable (different slot designs and voltage requirements).
Question 3
Which display technology is commonly used in modern laptops and offers good color reproduction?
a) CRT
b) LCD (IPS)
c) Plasma
d) OLED
Show Answer
Answer: b) LCD (IPS)
Explanation: IPS (In-Plane Switching) LCD panels offer good color reproduction and viewing angles. OLED provides better contrast but is more expensive. CRT and Plasma are obsolete.
Question 4
What type of connector is commonly used for external storage on laptops?
a) SATA
b) USB
c) VGA
d) HDMI
Show Answer
Answer: b) USB
Explanation: USB is the most common external connector for storage drives (USB flash drives, external HDDs/SSDs). SATA is internal. Display connectors include VGA, HDMI, and DisplayPort.
Question 5
What is a 2-in-1 laptop?
a) A laptop with two screens
b) A laptop that can convert to a tablet (detachable or convertible)
c) A laptop with two processors
d) A laptop with dual operating systems
Show Answer
Answer: b) A laptop that can convert to a tablet (detachable or convertible)
Explanation: 2-in-1 devices function as both laptop and tablet. Convertible models have screens that fold 360°, while detachables have removable keyboards.
Question 6
Which battery type is commonly used in modern laptops?
a) Ni-Cd
b) Ni-MH
c) Lithium-ion (Li-ion)
d) Lead-acid
Show Answer
Answer: c) Lithium-ion (Li-ion)
Explanation: Li-ion batteries are standard in modern laptops due to high energy density, no memory effect, and low self-discharge. Ni-Cd and Ni-MH are older technologies.
Question 7
What is the purpose of a laptop docking station?
a) Charging the battery
b) Expanding connectivity (ports, displays, peripherals) through a single connection
c) Cooling the laptop
d) Storing the laptop
Show Answer
Answer: b) Expanding connectivity (ports, displays, peripherals) through a single connection
Explanation: A docking station connects to a laptop via a single cable (USB-C or Thunderbolt) and provides additional ports: multiple displays, USB, Ethernet, audio, and power.
Question 8
Which tool is used to remove a laptop's internal battery safely?
a) Screwdriver
b) Plastic spudger (non-conductive tool)
c) Hammer
d) Magnetic screwdriver
Show Answer
Answer: b) Plastic spudger (non-conductive tool)
Explanation: A plastic spudger or pry tool is used to safely disconnect battery connectors without causing shorts. Metal tools can damage components or cause electrical shorts.
Core 1 Domain 2: Networking (Questions 9–15)
Question 9
Which cable type uses RJ45 connectors and is used for Ethernet?
a) Coaxial
b) Fiber optic
c) Twisted pair (Cat5e/Cat6)
d) Serial
Show Answer
Answer: c) Twisted pair (Cat5e/Cat6)
Explanation: Twisted pair cables with RJ45 connectors are the standard for Ethernet networks. Cat5e supports up to 1 Gbps, Cat6 supports up to 10 Gbps (shorter distances).
Question 10
Which wireless standard operates at 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz?
a) 802.11b
b) 802.11g
c) 802.11n (WiFi 4)
d) 802.11ac (WiFi 5)
Show Answer
Answer: c) 802.11n (WiFi 4)
Explanation: 802.11n (WiFi 4) supports both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands, with speeds up to 600 Mbps. 802.11ac (WiFi 5) is 5 GHz only. 802.11b/g are 2.4 GHz only.
Question 11
Which port does HTTP use?
a) 21
b) 25
c) 80
d) 443
Show Answer
Answer: c) 80
Explanation: HTTP uses port 80, HTTPS uses port 443, FTP uses port 21, and SMTP uses port 25.
Question 12
What does DHCP do?
a) Resolves domain names to IP addresses
b) Automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on a network
c) Routes traffic between networks
d) Encrypts network traffic
Show Answer
Answer: b) Automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on a network
Explanation: DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) automates IP address assignment, subnet masks, gateways, and DNS server configuration for network devices.
Question 13
What is the IP address 127.0.0.1 used for?
a) Default gateway
b) Loopback (localhost)
c) DHCP server
d) DNS server
Show Answer
Answer: b) Loopback (localhost)
Explanation: 127.0.0.1 is the loopback address pointing to the local machine. It's used for testing network services locally.
Question 14
Which network device connects multiple devices within a LAN and forwards based on MAC addresses?
a) Hub
b) Switch
c) Router
d) Firewall
Show Answer
Answer: b) Switch
Explanation: A switch connects devices within a LAN and forwards frames based on MAC addresses. Hubs repeat all traffic (inefficient). Routers connect different networks.
Question 15
What is a SOHO network?
a) A large enterprise network
b) A Small Office/Home Office network typically using a single integrated router
c) A mobile network
d) A virtual network
Show Answer
Answer: b) A Small Office/Home Office network typically using a single integrated router
Explanation: SOHO networks use an all-in-one device that combines router, switch, wireless access point, and firewall for small office or home use.
Core 1 Domain 3: Hardware (Questions 16–23)
Question 16
Which CPU manufacturer uses the LGA (Land Grid Array) socket?
a) AMD (modern)
b) Intel (modern)
c) Both
d) Neither
Show Answer
Answer: b) Intel (modern)
Explanation: Intel uses LGA sockets (pins on the motherboard). AMD uses PGA (pins on the CPU) for most consumer CPUs, though newer AMD platforms use LGA as well.
Question 17
What is the purpose of thermal paste between a CPU and heatsink?
a) Gluing the CPU to the heatsink
b) Improving heat transfer between CPU and heatsink
c) Insulating the CPU
d) Cooling the motherboard
Show Answer
Answer: b) Improving heat transfer between CPU and heatsink
Explanation: Thermal paste fills microscopic air gaps between the CPU and heatsink, improving thermal conductivity and heat dissipation. Too little or too much can cause overheating.
Question 18
Which storage type has no moving parts and uses NAND flash memory?
a) HDD
b) SSD
c) NVMe
d) Both b and c
Show Answer
Answer: d) Both b and c
Explanation: Both SATA SSDs and NVMe SSDs use NAND flash memory with no moving parts. NVMe is faster because it connects via PCIe instead of SATA.
Question 19
What is the most common form factor for desktop motherboards?
a) Mini-ITX
b) Micro-ATX
c) ATX
d) E-ATX
Show Answer
Answer: c) ATX
Explanation: ATX is the standard form factor for desktop motherboards (305×244 mm). Micro-ATX is smaller, Mini-ITX is compact, and E-ATX is larger for workstations.
Question 20
Which power supply connector provides power to the motherboard?
a) 4-pin Molex
b) SATA power
c) 24-pin ATX
d) 6-pin PCIe
Show Answer
Answer: c) 24-pin ATX
Explanation: The 24-pin ATX connector is the main power connector for the motherboard. The 4/8-pin EPS connector provides CPU power. SATA power goes to drives.
Question 21
What is RAID 1?
a) Striping (performance)
b) Mirroring (redundancy)
c) Parity (redundancy with efficiency)
d) No redundancy
Show Answer
Answer: b) Mirroring (redundancy)
Explanation: RAID 1 mirrors data across two or more drives. If one drive fails, data is preserved on the other. Capacity is 50% of total (e.g., 2×1TB = 1TB usable).
Question 22
What is the difference between DDR3 and DDR4 RAM?
a) DDR4 is faster and uses less power than DDR3
b) DDR3 is faster
c) They are interchangeable
d) DDR4 uses more power
Show Answer
Answer: a) DDR4 is faster and uses less power than DDR3
Explanation: DDR4 offers higher speeds (2133-3200 MHz vs 800-2133 MHz), lower voltage (1.2V vs 1.5V), and higher density per module compared to DDR3.
Question 23
What does POST (Power-On Self-Test) check?
a) Operating system integrity
b) Hardware components at startup
c) Network connectivity
d) User authentication
Show Answer
Answer: b) Hardware components at startup
Explanation: POST checks essential hardware (CPU, RAM, storage, graphics) during boot. Error beep codes indicate specific hardware failures.
Core 1 Domains 4 & 5: Virtualization/Cloud & Troubleshooting (Questions 24–28)
Question 24
What is the difference between IaaS and PaaS?
a) IaaS provides virtual infrastructure (VMs, storage); PaaS provides a platform for application development
b) PaaS provides VMs; IaaS provides development platforms
c) They are identical
d) IaaS is for storage only
Show Answer
Answer: a) IaaS provides virtual infrastructure (VMs, storage); PaaS provides a platform for application development
Explanation: IaaS provides virtualized computing resources. PaaS provides a managed platform for deploying applications without managing underlying infrastructure.
Question 25
What is a hypervisor?
a) A type of CPU
b) Software that creates and runs virtual machines
c) A network device
d) A storage controller
Show Answer
Answer: b) Software that creates and runs virtual machines
Explanation: A hypervisor (Type 1: bare-metal like VMware ESXi, Type 2: hosted like VirtualBox) manages virtual machines and allocates physical resources to them.
Question 26
What is the first step in the troubleshooting process?
a) Establish a theory of cause
b) Identify the problem
c) Test the theory
d) Implement a solution
Show Answer
Answer: b) Identify the problem
Explanation: The first step is to identify the problem by gathering information from the user, observing symptoms, and determining what has changed.
Question 27
A computer powers on but shows no display. What should you check first?
a) Replace the CPU
b) Check monitor connection, power, and whether the PC is actually booting (listening for beeps)
c) Replace the motherboard
d) Reinstall the OS
Show Answer
Answer: b) Check monitor connection, power, and whether the PC is actually booting (listening for beeps)
Explanation: Start with simple checks: monitor power, cable connection, and whether the computer is actually POSTing (listen for beep codes or look for diagnostic LEDs).
Question 28
Which tool would you use to test a power supply's output voltage?
a) Multimeter
b) Loopback plug
c) Cable tester
d) ESD strap
Show Answer
Answer: a) Multimeter
Explanation: A multimeter measures voltage, resistance, and continuity. It's used to test power supply outputs (e.g., 12V, 5V, 3.3V rails) to diagnose power issues.
Core 2 Domain 1: Operating Systems (Questions 29–35)
Question 29
Which Windows tool manages disk partitions?
a) Task Manager
b) Disk Management (diskmgmt.msc)
c) Device Manager
d) System Configuration
Show Answer
Answer: b) Disk Management (diskmgmt.msc)
Explanation: Disk Management (diskmgmt.msc) creates, deletes, extends, and shrinks partitions. It also initializes new drives and assigns drive letters.
Question 30
Which command checks and repairs system files in Windows?
a) chkdsk
b) sfc /scannow
c) diskpart
d) format
Show Answer
Answer: b) sfc /scannow
Explanation: System File Checker (sfc /scannow) scans and repairs protected Windows system files. chkdsk checks disk for errors, not system files.
Question 31
What is the purpose of Safe Mode?
a) Booting with a minimal set of drivers and services for troubleshooting
b) Secure internet browsing
c) Faster boot time
d) Automatic updates
Show Answer
Answer: a) Booting with a minimal set of drivers and services for troubleshooting
Explanation: Safe Mode loads only essential drivers and services, allowing troubleshooting of issues caused by third-party drivers, malware, or software conflicts.
Question 32
Which Windows tool manages startup programs?
a) Task Manager (Startup tab)
b) Device Manager
c) Disk Management
d) Event Viewer
Show Answer
Answer: a) Task Manager (Startup tab)
Explanation: Task Manager's Startup tab shows which applications launch at startup and allows enabling/disabling them to improve boot time.
Question 33
What is the Linux command to list files in a directory?
a) dir
b) ls
c) list
d) show
Show Answer
Answer: b) ls
Explanation: ls lists files and directories in Linux. dir is the Windows equivalent. Common options: ls -l (detailed view), ls -a (show hidden files).
Question 34
Which macOS feature creates a full system backup?
a) File History
b) Time Machine
c) System Restore
d) Backup and Restore
Show Answer
Answer: b) Time Machine
Explanation: Time Machine is macOS's built-in backup utility. It creates hourly, daily, and weekly backups to an external drive or network location.
Question 35
What does the Windows command ipconfig /release do?
a) Renews the IP address
b) Releases the current IP address
c) Displays DNS cache
d) Flushes DNS cache
Show Answer
Answer: b) Releases the current IP address
Explanation: ipconfig /release releases the current DHCP lease. ipconfig /renew requests a new IP address. ipconfig /flushdns clears the DNS resolver cache.
Core 2 Domain 2: Security (Questions 36–42)
Question 36
What is the purpose of Windows Defender?
a) Managing passwords
b) Antivirus and anti-malware protection
c) Firewall management
d) Disk cleanup
Show Answer
Answer: b) Antivirus and anti-malware protection
Explanation: Windows Defender (now Microsoft Defender) provides built-in antivirus, anti-malware, and real-time protection against threats.
Question 37
Which type of malware encrypts files and demands payment for the decryption key?
a) Virus
b) Worm
c) Ransomware
d) Trojan
Show Answer
Answer: c) Ransomware
Explanation: Ransomware encrypts victim files and demands payment (usually cryptocurrency) for the decryption key. Prevention includes backups and security awareness.
Question 38
What is social engineering?
a) Programming social media apps
b) Manipulating people to reveal confidential information
c) Engineering social networks
d) Building communication systems
Show Answer
Answer: b) Manipulating people to reveal confidential information
Explanation: Social engineering exploits human psychology to trick people into revealing passwords, clicking malicious links, or granting access.
Question 39
What is the principle of least privilege?
a) Granting users all available permissions
b) Granting only the minimum permissions needed for job functions
c) Granting permissions based on seniority
d) Denying all permissions
Show Answer
Answer: b) Granting only the minimum permissions needed for job functions
Explanation: Least privilege restricts users to only the permissions necessary for their role, reducing the attack surface and potential damage from compromised accounts.
Question 40
What is MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication)?
a) Using multiple passwords
b) Requiring two or more different authentication factors
c) Logging in from multiple devices
d) Using biometrics only
Show Answer
Answer: b) Requiring two or more different authentication factors
Explanation: MFA requires factors from at least two categories: something you know (password), something you have (phone/token), and something you are (biometric).
Question 41
Which Windows feature encrypts entire drives?
a) EFS
b) BitLocker
c) Windows Defender
d) User Account Control (UAC)
Show Answer
Answer: b) BitLocker
Explanation: BitLocker provides full-disk encryption for Windows drives, protecting data if the device is lost or stolen. EFS encrypts individual files.
Question 42
What is the purpose of Windows UAC (User Account Control)?
a) Encrypting files
b) Prompting for permission before making system changes
c) Managing user accounts
d) Blocking network traffic
Show Answer
Answer: b) Prompting for permission before making system changes
Explanation: UAC prompts for administrator permission before allowing system-level changes, preventing unauthorized modifications by malware or unaware users.
Core 2 Domain 3: Software Troubleshooting (Questions 43–47)
Question 43
A Windows application crashes on startup. What should you try first?
a) Reinstall Windows
b) Run the application as administrator or in compatibility mode
c) Replace the hard drive
d) Update the BIOS
Show Answer
Answer: b) Run the application as administrator or in compatibility mode
Explanation: Application startup failures can be resolved by running as administrator (permissions) or using compatibility mode (for older apps). Then try reinstalling if needed.
Question 44
What is the first step when a Windows computer will not boot?
a) Reinstall Windows immediately
b) Boot into Safe Mode or use Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE) for troubleshooting
c) Replace the motherboard
d) Buy a new computer
Show Answer
Answer: b) Boot into Safe Mode or use Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE) for troubleshooting
Explanation: Start with Safe Mode (minimal drivers) or WinRE for recovery options (System Restore, Startup Repair, Command Prompt) before more drastic measures.
Question 45
Which Windows tool would you use to roll back a recently installed driver?
a) Device Manager
b) Disk Management
c) System Configuration
d) Task Manager
Show Answer
Answer: a) Device Manager
Explanation: Device Manager allows rolling back drivers to a previous version (Driver tab → Roll Back Driver) if a new driver is causing issues.
Question 46
What is the purpose of System Restore in Windows?
a) Creating full system backups
b) Reverting system files and settings to a previous point without affecting personal files
c) Restoring deleted files
d) Reinstalling Windows
Show Answer
Answer: b) Reverting system files and settings to a previous point without affecting personal files
Explanation: System Restore creates restore points (before significant changes) and can revert system files, settings, and installed programs to an earlier state.
Question 47
What does the chkdsk /f command do?
a) Checks disk and fixes file system errors
b) Formats the drive
c) Defragments the drive
d) Checks memory
Show Answer
Answer: a) Checks disk and fixes file system errors
Explanation: chkdsk /f checks the disk for file system errors and attempts to fix them. chkdsk /r also locates bad sectors and recovers readable data.
Core 2 Domain 4: Operational Procedures (Questions 48–50)
Question 48
What is the purpose of an ESD (Electrostatic Discharge) strap?
a) Grounding the technician to prevent static discharge damage to components
b) Testing electrical outlets
c) Measuring voltage
d) Cleaning components
Show Answer
Answer: a) Grounding the technician to prevent static discharge damage to components
Explanation: An ESD strap grounds the technician to prevent static buildup from damaging sensitive electronic components. Always use ESD protection when handling internal components.
Question 49
What is the best practice for disposing of old hard drives containing sensitive data?
a) Throwing them in the trash
b) Physical destruction or secure wiping with data sanitization software
c) Formatting with Quick Format
d) Donating them
Show Answer
Answer: b) Physical destruction or secure wiping with data sanitization software
Explanation: Data on formatted or deleted drives can be recovered. Proper disposal requires physical destruction (shredding, degaussing) or secure wiping (multiple-pass overwrites).
Question 50
What is the first action when dealing with an angry or frustrated user?
a) Tell them to calm down
b) Listen actively to their problem without interrupting
c) Transfer them to a supervisor
d) Ignore their frustration
Show Answer
Answer: b) Listen actively to their problem without interrupting
Explanation: Professional communication begins with active listening — let the user explain their issue fully, show empathy, and then work toward a solution. This helps de-escalate tension.
How Did You Score?
- 0–25 correct: Review the CompTIA A+ Exam Guide.
- 26–40 correct: On track. Focus on weak areas.
- 41–50 correct: Ready for the exam!
Access all A+ practice questions →
Related Articles
Bereit, dein Wissen zu testen?
Probiere unsere Übungsprüfungen mit Hunderten von realistischen Fragen aus.
Üben starten →