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50 Free CompTIA A+ Practice Questions (220-1101 & 220-1102)

29. Juli 2026~16 min read

Preparing for the CompTIA A+ certification? These 50 free practice questions cover both Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) exam domains.


Core 1 Domain 1: Mobile Devices (Questions 1–8)

Question 1

Which laptop component is most likely to fail due to physical wear over time?

a) CPU
b) Hard drive (HDD)
c) RAM
d) Motherboard

Show Answer

Answer: b) Hard drive (HDD)

Explanation: HDDs have moving parts (spinning platters, read/write heads) that wear out over time. SSDs have no moving parts and are more durable. Regular backups are essential.

Question 2

What is the difference between DDR4 and DDR5 RAM?

a) DDR5 is faster and has higher capacity per module
b) DDR4 is always better than DDR5
c) DDR5 uses more power
d) They are interchangeable

Show Answer

Answer: a) DDR5 is faster and has higher capacity per module

Explanation: DDR5 offers higher speeds, larger capacities per module, and better power efficiency than DDR4. They're not interchangeable (different slot designs and voltage requirements).

Question 3

Which display technology is commonly used in modern laptops and offers good color reproduction?

a) CRT
b) LCD (IPS)
c) Plasma
d) OLED

Show Answer

Answer: b) LCD (IPS)

Explanation: IPS (In-Plane Switching) LCD panels offer good color reproduction and viewing angles. OLED provides better contrast but is more expensive. CRT and Plasma are obsolete.

Question 4

What type of connector is commonly used for external storage on laptops?

a) SATA
b) USB
c) VGA
d) HDMI

Show Answer

Answer: b) USB

Explanation: USB is the most common external connector for storage drives (USB flash drives, external HDDs/SSDs). SATA is internal. Display connectors include VGA, HDMI, and DisplayPort.

Question 5

What is a 2-in-1 laptop?

a) A laptop with two screens
b) A laptop that can convert to a tablet (detachable or convertible)
c) A laptop with two processors
d) A laptop with dual operating systems

Show Answer

Answer: b) A laptop that can convert to a tablet (detachable or convertible)

Explanation: 2-in-1 devices function as both laptop and tablet. Convertible models have screens that fold 360°, while detachables have removable keyboards.

Question 6

Which battery type is commonly used in modern laptops?

a) Ni-Cd
b) Ni-MH
c) Lithium-ion (Li-ion)
d) Lead-acid

Show Answer

Answer: c) Lithium-ion (Li-ion)

Explanation: Li-ion batteries are standard in modern laptops due to high energy density, no memory effect, and low self-discharge. Ni-Cd and Ni-MH are older technologies.

Question 7

What is the purpose of a laptop docking station?

a) Charging the battery
b) Expanding connectivity (ports, displays, peripherals) through a single connection
c) Cooling the laptop
d) Storing the laptop

Show Answer

Answer: b) Expanding connectivity (ports, displays, peripherals) through a single connection

Explanation: A docking station connects to a laptop via a single cable (USB-C or Thunderbolt) and provides additional ports: multiple displays, USB, Ethernet, audio, and power.

Question 8

Which tool is used to remove a laptop's internal battery safely?

a) Screwdriver
b) Plastic spudger (non-conductive tool)
c) Hammer
d) Magnetic screwdriver

Show Answer

Answer: b) Plastic spudger (non-conductive tool)

Explanation: A plastic spudger or pry tool is used to safely disconnect battery connectors without causing shorts. Metal tools can damage components or cause electrical shorts.


Core 1 Domain 2: Networking (Questions 9–15)

Question 9

Which cable type uses RJ45 connectors and is used for Ethernet?

a) Coaxial
b) Fiber optic
c) Twisted pair (Cat5e/Cat6)
d) Serial

Show Answer

Answer: c) Twisted pair (Cat5e/Cat6)

Explanation: Twisted pair cables with RJ45 connectors are the standard for Ethernet networks. Cat5e supports up to 1 Gbps, Cat6 supports up to 10 Gbps (shorter distances).

Question 10

Which wireless standard operates at 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz?

a) 802.11b
b) 802.11g
c) 802.11n (WiFi 4)
d) 802.11ac (WiFi 5)

Show Answer

Answer: c) 802.11n (WiFi 4)

Explanation: 802.11n (WiFi 4) supports both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands, with speeds up to 600 Mbps. 802.11ac (WiFi 5) is 5 GHz only. 802.11b/g are 2.4 GHz only.

Question 11

Which port does HTTP use?

a) 21
b) 25
c) 80
d) 443

Show Answer

Answer: c) 80

Explanation: HTTP uses port 80, HTTPS uses port 443, FTP uses port 21, and SMTP uses port 25.

Question 12

What does DHCP do?

a) Resolves domain names to IP addresses
b) Automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on a network
c) Routes traffic between networks
d) Encrypts network traffic

Show Answer

Answer: b) Automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on a network

Explanation: DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) automates IP address assignment, subnet masks, gateways, and DNS server configuration for network devices.

Question 13

What is the IP address 127.0.0.1 used for?

a) Default gateway
b) Loopback (localhost)
c) DHCP server
d) DNS server

Show Answer

Answer: b) Loopback (localhost)

Explanation: 127.0.0.1 is the loopback address pointing to the local machine. It's used for testing network services locally.

Question 14

Which network device connects multiple devices within a LAN and forwards based on MAC addresses?

a) Hub
b) Switch
c) Router
d) Firewall

Show Answer

Answer: b) Switch

Explanation: A switch connects devices within a LAN and forwards frames based on MAC addresses. Hubs repeat all traffic (inefficient). Routers connect different networks.

Question 15

What is a SOHO network?

a) A large enterprise network
b) A Small Office/Home Office network typically using a single integrated router
c) A mobile network
d) A virtual network

Show Answer

Answer: b) A Small Office/Home Office network typically using a single integrated router

Explanation: SOHO networks use an all-in-one device that combines router, switch, wireless access point, and firewall for small office or home use.


Core 1 Domain 3: Hardware (Questions 16–23)

Question 16

Which CPU manufacturer uses the LGA (Land Grid Array) socket?

a) AMD (modern)
b) Intel (modern)
c) Both
d) Neither

Show Answer

Answer: b) Intel (modern)

Explanation: Intel uses LGA sockets (pins on the motherboard). AMD uses PGA (pins on the CPU) for most consumer CPUs, though newer AMD platforms use LGA as well.

Question 17

What is the purpose of thermal paste between a CPU and heatsink?

a) Gluing the CPU to the heatsink
b) Improving heat transfer between CPU and heatsink
c) Insulating the CPU
d) Cooling the motherboard

Show Answer

Answer: b) Improving heat transfer between CPU and heatsink

Explanation: Thermal paste fills microscopic air gaps between the CPU and heatsink, improving thermal conductivity and heat dissipation. Too little or too much can cause overheating.

Question 18

Which storage type has no moving parts and uses NAND flash memory?

a) HDD
b) SSD
c) NVMe
d) Both b and c

Show Answer

Answer: d) Both b and c

Explanation: Both SATA SSDs and NVMe SSDs use NAND flash memory with no moving parts. NVMe is faster because it connects via PCIe instead of SATA.

Question 19

What is the most common form factor for desktop motherboards?

a) Mini-ITX
b) Micro-ATX
c) ATX
d) E-ATX

Show Answer

Answer: c) ATX

Explanation: ATX is the standard form factor for desktop motherboards (305×244 mm). Micro-ATX is smaller, Mini-ITX is compact, and E-ATX is larger for workstations.

Question 20

Which power supply connector provides power to the motherboard?

a) 4-pin Molex
b) SATA power
c) 24-pin ATX
d) 6-pin PCIe

Show Answer

Answer: c) 24-pin ATX

Explanation: The 24-pin ATX connector is the main power connector for the motherboard. The 4/8-pin EPS connector provides CPU power. SATA power goes to drives.

Question 21

What is RAID 1?

a) Striping (performance)
b) Mirroring (redundancy)
c) Parity (redundancy with efficiency)
d) No redundancy

Show Answer

Answer: b) Mirroring (redundancy)

Explanation: RAID 1 mirrors data across two or more drives. If one drive fails, data is preserved on the other. Capacity is 50% of total (e.g., 2×1TB = 1TB usable).

Question 22

What is the difference between DDR3 and DDR4 RAM?

a) DDR4 is faster and uses less power than DDR3
b) DDR3 is faster
c) They are interchangeable
d) DDR4 uses more power

Show Answer

Answer: a) DDR4 is faster and uses less power than DDR3

Explanation: DDR4 offers higher speeds (2133-3200 MHz vs 800-2133 MHz), lower voltage (1.2V vs 1.5V), and higher density per module compared to DDR3.

Question 23

What does POST (Power-On Self-Test) check?

a) Operating system integrity
b) Hardware components at startup
c) Network connectivity
d) User authentication

Show Answer

Answer: b) Hardware components at startup

Explanation: POST checks essential hardware (CPU, RAM, storage, graphics) during boot. Error beep codes indicate specific hardware failures.


Core 1 Domains 4 & 5: Virtualization/Cloud & Troubleshooting (Questions 24–28)

Question 24

What is the difference between IaaS and PaaS?

a) IaaS provides virtual infrastructure (VMs, storage); PaaS provides a platform for application development
b) PaaS provides VMs; IaaS provides development platforms
c) They are identical
d) IaaS is for storage only

Show Answer

Answer: a) IaaS provides virtual infrastructure (VMs, storage); PaaS provides a platform for application development

Explanation: IaaS provides virtualized computing resources. PaaS provides a managed platform for deploying applications without managing underlying infrastructure.

Question 25

What is a hypervisor?

a) A type of CPU
b) Software that creates and runs virtual machines
c) A network device
d) A storage controller

Show Answer

Answer: b) Software that creates and runs virtual machines

Explanation: A hypervisor (Type 1: bare-metal like VMware ESXi, Type 2: hosted like VirtualBox) manages virtual machines and allocates physical resources to them.

Question 26

What is the first step in the troubleshooting process?

a) Establish a theory of cause
b) Identify the problem
c) Test the theory
d) Implement a solution

Show Answer

Answer: b) Identify the problem

Explanation: The first step is to identify the problem by gathering information from the user, observing symptoms, and determining what has changed.

Question 27

A computer powers on but shows no display. What should you check first?

a) Replace the CPU
b) Check monitor connection, power, and whether the PC is actually booting (listening for beeps)
c) Replace the motherboard
d) Reinstall the OS

Show Answer

Answer: b) Check monitor connection, power, and whether the PC is actually booting (listening for beeps)

Explanation: Start with simple checks: monitor power, cable connection, and whether the computer is actually POSTing (listen for beep codes or look for diagnostic LEDs).

Question 28

Which tool would you use to test a power supply's output voltage?

a) Multimeter
b) Loopback plug
c) Cable tester
d) ESD strap

Show Answer

Answer: a) Multimeter

Explanation: A multimeter measures voltage, resistance, and continuity. It's used to test power supply outputs (e.g., 12V, 5V, 3.3V rails) to diagnose power issues.


Core 2 Domain 1: Operating Systems (Questions 29–35)

Question 29

Which Windows tool manages disk partitions?

a) Task Manager
b) Disk Management (diskmgmt.msc)
c) Device Manager
d) System Configuration

Show Answer

Answer: b) Disk Management (diskmgmt.msc)

Explanation: Disk Management (diskmgmt.msc) creates, deletes, extends, and shrinks partitions. It also initializes new drives and assigns drive letters.

Question 30

Which command checks and repairs system files in Windows?

a) chkdsk
b) sfc /scannow
c) diskpart
d) format

Show Answer

Answer: b) sfc /scannow

Explanation: System File Checker (sfc /scannow) scans and repairs protected Windows system files. chkdsk checks disk for errors, not system files.

Question 31

What is the purpose of Safe Mode?

a) Booting with a minimal set of drivers and services for troubleshooting
b) Secure internet browsing
c) Faster boot time
d) Automatic updates

Show Answer

Answer: a) Booting with a minimal set of drivers and services for troubleshooting

Explanation: Safe Mode loads only essential drivers and services, allowing troubleshooting of issues caused by third-party drivers, malware, or software conflicts.

Question 32

Which Windows tool manages startup programs?

a) Task Manager (Startup tab)
b) Device Manager
c) Disk Management
d) Event Viewer

Show Answer

Answer: a) Task Manager (Startup tab)

Explanation: Task Manager's Startup tab shows which applications launch at startup and allows enabling/disabling them to improve boot time.

Question 33

What is the Linux command to list files in a directory?

a) dir
b) ls
c) list
d) show

Show Answer

Answer: b) ls

Explanation: ls lists files and directories in Linux. dir is the Windows equivalent. Common options: ls -l (detailed view), ls -a (show hidden files).

Question 34

Which macOS feature creates a full system backup?

a) File History
b) Time Machine
c) System Restore
d) Backup and Restore

Show Answer

Answer: b) Time Machine

Explanation: Time Machine is macOS's built-in backup utility. It creates hourly, daily, and weekly backups to an external drive or network location.

Question 35

What does the Windows command ipconfig /release do?

a) Renews the IP address
b) Releases the current IP address
c) Displays DNS cache
d) Flushes DNS cache

Show Answer

Answer: b) Releases the current IP address

Explanation: ipconfig /release releases the current DHCP lease. ipconfig /renew requests a new IP address. ipconfig /flushdns clears the DNS resolver cache.


Core 2 Domain 2: Security (Questions 36–42)

Question 36

What is the purpose of Windows Defender?

a) Managing passwords
b) Antivirus and anti-malware protection
c) Firewall management
d) Disk cleanup

Show Answer

Answer: b) Antivirus and anti-malware protection

Explanation: Windows Defender (now Microsoft Defender) provides built-in antivirus, anti-malware, and real-time protection against threats.

Question 37

Which type of malware encrypts files and demands payment for the decryption key?

a) Virus
b) Worm
c) Ransomware
d) Trojan

Show Answer

Answer: c) Ransomware

Explanation: Ransomware encrypts victim files and demands payment (usually cryptocurrency) for the decryption key. Prevention includes backups and security awareness.

Question 38

What is social engineering?

a) Programming social media apps
b) Manipulating people to reveal confidential information
c) Engineering social networks
d) Building communication systems

Show Answer

Answer: b) Manipulating people to reveal confidential information

Explanation: Social engineering exploits human psychology to trick people into revealing passwords, clicking malicious links, or granting access.

Question 39

What is the principle of least privilege?

a) Granting users all available permissions
b) Granting only the minimum permissions needed for job functions
c) Granting permissions based on seniority
d) Denying all permissions

Show Answer

Answer: b) Granting only the minimum permissions needed for job functions

Explanation: Least privilege restricts users to only the permissions necessary for their role, reducing the attack surface and potential damage from compromised accounts.

Question 40

What is MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication)?

a) Using multiple passwords
b) Requiring two or more different authentication factors
c) Logging in from multiple devices
d) Using biometrics only

Show Answer

Answer: b) Requiring two or more different authentication factors

Explanation: MFA requires factors from at least two categories: something you know (password), something you have (phone/token), and something you are (biometric).

Question 41

Which Windows feature encrypts entire drives?

a) EFS
b) BitLocker
c) Windows Defender
d) User Account Control (UAC)

Show Answer

Answer: b) BitLocker

Explanation: BitLocker provides full-disk encryption for Windows drives, protecting data if the device is lost or stolen. EFS encrypts individual files.

Question 42

What is the purpose of Windows UAC (User Account Control)?

a) Encrypting files
b) Prompting for permission before making system changes
c) Managing user accounts
d) Blocking network traffic

Show Answer

Answer: b) Prompting for permission before making system changes

Explanation: UAC prompts for administrator permission before allowing system-level changes, preventing unauthorized modifications by malware or unaware users.


Core 2 Domain 3: Software Troubleshooting (Questions 43–47)

Question 43

A Windows application crashes on startup. What should you try first?

a) Reinstall Windows
b) Run the application as administrator or in compatibility mode
c) Replace the hard drive
d) Update the BIOS

Show Answer

Answer: b) Run the application as administrator or in compatibility mode

Explanation: Application startup failures can be resolved by running as administrator (permissions) or using compatibility mode (for older apps). Then try reinstalling if needed.

Question 44

What is the first step when a Windows computer will not boot?

a) Reinstall Windows immediately
b) Boot into Safe Mode or use Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE) for troubleshooting
c) Replace the motherboard
d) Buy a new computer

Show Answer

Answer: b) Boot into Safe Mode or use Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE) for troubleshooting

Explanation: Start with Safe Mode (minimal drivers) or WinRE for recovery options (System Restore, Startup Repair, Command Prompt) before more drastic measures.

Question 45

Which Windows tool would you use to roll back a recently installed driver?

a) Device Manager
b) Disk Management
c) System Configuration
d) Task Manager

Show Answer

Answer: a) Device Manager

Explanation: Device Manager allows rolling back drivers to a previous version (Driver tab → Roll Back Driver) if a new driver is causing issues.

Question 46

What is the purpose of System Restore in Windows?

a) Creating full system backups
b) Reverting system files and settings to a previous point without affecting personal files
c) Restoring deleted files
d) Reinstalling Windows

Show Answer

Answer: b) Reverting system files and settings to a previous point without affecting personal files

Explanation: System Restore creates restore points (before significant changes) and can revert system files, settings, and installed programs to an earlier state.

Question 47

What does the chkdsk /f command do?

a) Checks disk and fixes file system errors
b) Formats the drive
c) Defragments the drive
d) Checks memory

Show Answer

Answer: a) Checks disk and fixes file system errors

Explanation: chkdsk /f checks the disk for file system errors and attempts to fix them. chkdsk /r also locates bad sectors and recovers readable data.


Core 2 Domain 4: Operational Procedures (Questions 48–50)

Question 48

What is the purpose of an ESD (Electrostatic Discharge) strap?

a) Grounding the technician to prevent static discharge damage to components
b) Testing electrical outlets
c) Measuring voltage
d) Cleaning components

Show Answer

Answer: a) Grounding the technician to prevent static discharge damage to components

Explanation: An ESD strap grounds the technician to prevent static buildup from damaging sensitive electronic components. Always use ESD protection when handling internal components.

Question 49

What is the best practice for disposing of old hard drives containing sensitive data?

a) Throwing them in the trash
b) Physical destruction or secure wiping with data sanitization software
c) Formatting with Quick Format
d) Donating them

Show Answer

Answer: b) Physical destruction or secure wiping with data sanitization software

Explanation: Data on formatted or deleted drives can be recovered. Proper disposal requires physical destruction (shredding, degaussing) or secure wiping (multiple-pass overwrites).

Question 50

What is the first action when dealing with an angry or frustrated user?

a) Tell them to calm down
b) Listen actively to their problem without interrupting
c) Transfer them to a supervisor
d) Ignore their frustration

Show Answer

Answer: b) Listen actively to their problem without interrupting

Explanation: Professional communication begins with active listening — let the user explain their issue fully, show empathy, and then work toward a solution. This helps de-escalate tension.


How Did You Score?

  • 0–25 correct: Review the CompTIA A+ Exam Guide.
  • 26–40 correct: On track. Focus on weak areas.
  • 41–50 correct: Ready for the exam!

Access all A+ practice questions →


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